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General Science for forthcomming Exam

General Science for forthcomming Exam

1. How many carbon atoms are there in one molecule of methane (chemical formula CH4?)

a. 1

b. 4

c. 5

d. The number cannot be determined from the formula.

2. Which form of matter has a definite volume, but no definite shape?

a. Solid

b. Liquid

c. Gas

d. Plasma

3. Processes of changing a liquid to a gas is called

a. Melting

b. Boiling

c. Vaporization

d. Sublimation

4. An element is determined by the number of

a. Atoms

b. Electrons

c. Neutrons

d. Protons

5. Fluorine F is a

a. Metal

b. Non metal

c. Compound

d. Element

6. State of uranium (U) at 0? c and 1 atm of pressure is

a. Gas

b. Liquid

c. Solid

d. Vapour

7. CaSo4 is named as

a. Calcium carbonate

b. Calcium hydroxide

c. Calcium oxide

d. Calcium sulphate

8. Cobalt is a

a. Halogen

b. Transition metal

c. Alkaline earth metal

d. None of these

9. What term describes the concentration of a solution in moles per litter?

a. Molarity

b. Osmosis

c. Molality

d. Diffusion

10. The Ideal gas law is a combination of Boyle’s law, Charle’s law and Avogadro’s law .What is the Ideal gas law?

a. PV=NRT

b. PE=mgh

c. F=ma

d. V=IR

11. Which of these values signifies the greatest temperature?

a. 1 degree Kelvin

b. 1 degree Rankin

c. 1 degree Fahrenheit

d. 1 degree Celsius

12. What is the abbreviation THEL stands for

a. Tactical high energy laser

b. Titanium harmonic emergent laser

c. Thermabaric harmonic emergent light

d. Thermo baric high energy light

13. Why are recoilless guns recoilless?

a. Their barrels are open at both ends.

b. They are loaded with missiles not cannon balls

c. They are not placed an wheels

d. They are made up of very heavy metal

14. Which statement is true about airplanes?

a. To dive, ailerons are down

b. To dive, elevators are down

c. To dive, elevators are up

d. To dive, ailerons are up

15. Taxonomy of vertebrate divides fishes in to which two basic groups?

a. Jawed and jawless

b. Gilled and non-gilled

c. Mammalian and non-mammalian

d. Nematodes and non-nematodes

16. What makes almost 99% of the visible Universe?

a. Quasars

b. Nitrogen

c. Plasma

d. Solids

17. What do we call cells with a nucleus?

a. Prokaryotic

b. Eukaryotic

c. Mitochondrial

d. Golgi

18. What does the prefix’ achy-‘’ means?

a. Too fast

b. Too slow

c. Too loud

d. Too soft

19. A doctor says you need a CBC.What is he talking about?

a. An enema

b. A vacation

c. A medication

d. A blood test

20. In preparation for a blood test, the lab slip says you have to be NPO for 8 hours prior to test, what do you have to do?

a. Sleep for 8 hours

b. Exercise for 8 hours

c. Lie flat in bed for 8 hours

d. Do not take anything by mouth

21. What is the exact value of the `Pi’?

a. 3

b. 22/7

c. Impossible to calculate

d. 3.14

22. What is the smallest prime number?

a. 2

b. 144

c. 1

d. 3

23. What is the only number with no reciprocal?

a. Pi

b. 0

c. 1

d. -1

24. How fast is a mile a minute?

a. Speed of the fastest human runner

b. 60 yards an hour

c. 60 kilometre an hour

d. 60 miles an hour

25. Yhrium

a. xe

b. Y

c. V

d. W



Answers



1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. b

6. c 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. a

11. d 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. a

16. c 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. d

21. c 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. b

Indian Polity Objective Questions

Objective questions for Indian Polity

FOR ALL EXAMS

SET-1

1. If it is desirable to establish a Presidential form of government in India, the foremost and immediate amendment has to be made affecting the—
(A) System of Judiciary
(B) Composition of the Parliament
(C) Powers of the Executive
(D) Provisions of the Fundamental Rights

2. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented—
(A) In any court of the country
(B) In the Supreme Court only
(C) In the High Court only
(D) In either Supreme Court of High Court

3. Who amongst the following can be removed without Parliament's resolution?
(A) Governor of a state
(B) Any judge of the Supreme Court
(C) Any judge of a High Court
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

4. If a question asked by a Member of Parliament is a starred one, he will get—
(A) A written answer
(B) An oral answer
(C) Answer in the Zero hour
(D) No answer

5. According to the provisions of the Constitution, which one of the following can be abolished?
(A) Legislative Assembly
(B) Legislative Council
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha

6. Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, will be decided by the—
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Prime Minister

7. After the general elections a new Lok Sabha is constituted. In its first session, the Speaker is elected. Who presides over this first session?
(A) Ex-Speaker
(B) Ex-Prime Minister
(C) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(D) Oldest member of the House

8. The 'Indian Parliament' comprise of the—
(A) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the President
(C) Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers
(D) Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers

9. In the event of the breakdown of the constitutional machinery of any state, under which one of the following Articles can President's Rule be imposed?
(A) 352
(B) 256
(C) 360
(D) 370

10. Which one of the following has got most effective provisions towards the establishment of socio-economic justice in India?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of the State Policy
(D) Preamble of the Constitution

11. Which one of the following is a national political party?
(A) All India Anna D. M. K.
(B) National Conference
(C) Communist Party of India
(D) All India Forward Block

12. Which of the following is a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Tibet
(C) Myanmar
(D) Malaysia

13. Human Rights Day is observed all over the world every year on—
(A) 24 October
(B) 7 November
(C) 10 December
(D) 25 December

14. Individual liberty is best reflected in a—
(A) Socialist State
(B) Communist State
(C) Welfare State
(D) Fascist State

15. Universal Adult Franchise makes a government—
(A) More responsive
(B) More efficient
(C) More popular amongst the minorities
(D) More stable

16. In Dictorship Executive is responsible to—
(A) An advisory council
(B) The people's representatives
(C) The high administrative officers
(D) No one

17. While casting her vote in any election, a woman exercises her—
(A) Civics right
(B) Social right
(C) Natural right
(D) Political right

18. In India, the states derive their power from the—
(A) People
(B) Constitution
(C) State Assembly
(D) Parliament

19. How many representatives for Vidhan Parishad of U.P. are elected from the teacher's constituency?
(A) 18
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) 6

20. For removing the Vice President of Indian from his office a resolution is initiated in—
(A) The joint sitting of both the House
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) Any of the two Houses

21. Which of the following has got a Lt. Governor?
(A) Delhi
(B) Goa
(C) Karnataka
(D) Manipur

22. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has been ensured to the citizens of India?
(A) To get education
(B) To get employment
(C) To buy and sale property
(D) To form associations or unions

23. By Parliament we mean—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President

24. Who appoints the ad-hoc Chief Justice of a High Court?
(A) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) The President of India
(C) The Governor of the State concerned
(D) The Cabinet at the Centre

25. In the Panchayati Raj system, the 'Panchayat Samiti' is constituted at the—
(A) Village level
(B) Block level
(C) City level
(D) District level

Answers :

1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B)
6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (B)

SET-2

1. Which of the following is the demerit of a federation?
(A) It encourages regionalism
(B) It creates unity in diversity
(C) It gives considerable measure of autonomy to the states
(D) It prevents the central government from being despotic in behaviour

2. The first non-aligned summit conference was held in 1961 in—
(A) Cairo (Egypt)
(B) Belgrade (Yugoslavia)
(C) Nairoh (Kenya)
(D) Havana (Cuba)

3. Which of the following is wrong about the Parliamentary Democracy?
(A) It does not adjust easily according to the changed circumstances
(B) Ministers get more opportunities to show their abilities under this system of government
(C) President gives impartial advice
(D) There is close co-operation between the executive and the legislature

4. In a Presidential type of government, we find that—
(A) The Chief Executive is always elected
(B) The term of the Chief Executive is fixed for certain period
(C) The Secretaries are fully subordinate to the President
(D) All the above

5. A representative government is not possible without—
(A) Political parties
(B) Impartial election
(C) Political consciousness among the people
(D) All the above

6. "A political party consists of a group of citizens more or less organised, who act as a political unit and who, by the use of their voting power, aim to control the government and carry out their general policies." Whose words are these?
(A) Garner
(B) Gilchrist
(C) Gettell
(D) MacIver

7. Which of the following is the demerit of party system?
(A) It creates awakening among the masses who starts struggling for their demands
(B) It compels the government to work according to public opinion
(C) It leads government to introduce reforms
(D) It divides nation into several groups

8. In India there is
(A) One party system
(B) Bi-party system
(C) Multi party system
(D) None of the above

9. A coalition government in a country is generally formed where there is—
(A) Two party system
(B) One party system
(C) Multi party system dominated by one party
(D) No party system

10. The real work of opposition party in a democratic country is—
(A) To make delays in legislation
(B) To put obstacles in the way of the government of the rival parties
(C) To topple down the government of the rival parties
(D) To offer the healthy criticism to the government of rival parties

11. Which of the following conditions is necessary to make party system successful?
(A) Political parties should be organised on caste basis
(B) Political parties should give more importance to the local problems than national issues
(C) Political parties should try to solve the economic and political problems
(D) Political parties should not allow the people to take active interest in the politics

12. Ultimate object of a political party is—
(A) To contest election
(B) To expose the weakness of rival political parties
(C) To form and run their own government according to their own policies
(D) To increase their strength or membership

13. Political equality means—
(A) Every citizen should be given political education
(B) Every citizen should be given a chance to work in the government turn by turn
(C) Every citizen should be given right to vote and contest election
(D) Every citizen should be a member of any political party

14. Adult franchise is disadvantageous—
(A) If the people cast their votes in favour of those candidates who give them money
(B) If the votes caste their votes to the candidates belonging to their own castes or religion and not to the able candidates
(C) If the people caste their votes thought lessly
(D) In all the above cases

15. Some articles of the Constitution of India were enforced even before 26th January, 1950, when were they enforced?
(A) December 24, 1949
(B) October 26, 1949
(C) November 26, 1949
(D) December 26, 1949

16. Indian constitution is—
(A) More rigid than American constitution
(B) More flexible than English constitution
(C) More rigid than both English and American constitutions
(D) More rigid than English constitution but flexible than American constitution

17. Indian constitution was prepared in—
(A) 2 years and 11 months
(B) 2 years and 18 months
(C) 2 years and 18 days
(D) 2 years 11 months and 18 days

18. Indian constitution after its completion was adopted by Constituent Assembly on—
(A) January 26, 1950
(B) November 26, 1949
(C) August 15, 1947
(D) October 2, 1948

19. Which of the following is not included in the preamble to the Indian constitution?
(A) Justice social, economic and political
(B) Education to men, women and children
(C) Liberty of thought, expression, faith and worship
(D) To promote equality of status and opportunity to all

20. The idea of Fundamental Rights was taken from—
(A) England
(B) America
(C) Iran
(D) Ancient India

21. President of the Constituent Assembly with whose signature the Indian constitution was adopted was—
(A) Dr. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

22. The ultimate authority according to the preamble of the Indian constitution vests in—
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The President, Prime Minister and rulers of native states
(D) People of India as a whole

23. The parliamentary set up in the Indian constitution has been adopted from—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Russia
(C) England
(D) All the above

24. Which of the following has been borrowed from Ireland by the framers of the Indian constitution ?
(A) Preamble
(B) Nomination of the members of Rajya Sabha
(C) Directive principles of states policy
(D) Supreme Court

25. Idea of concurrent list in Indian constitution was borrowed from—
(A) England
(B) America
(C) Australia
(D) Russia

Answers :

1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D)
6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (C)

SET-3

1. It is "an association estalished by nature for the supply of man's every day wants." About which Aristotle said these words?
(A) Society
(B) Family
(C) Community
(D) State

2. Indian foreign policy of non-alignment stands for—
(A) Acting as a mediator between nations
(B) Non-involvement in the power block politics
(C) Co-operating with the neighbouring countries
(D) Taking side of all the nations

3. A subject is said to be in the concurrent list when a law can be passed on it by—
(A) The Central Government
(B) The Central and State Government both
(C) The State Government
(D) The President and the Prime Minister together

4. Who among the following persons is acknowledged as the father of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

5. When a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, but not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days of its receipt—
(A) It cannot become an Act
(B) It is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses
(C) It is again referred to the Rajya Sabha
(D) It is reconsidered by the Lok Sabha itself

6. The Industrial Revolution was brought about on account of—
(A) The workers refusing to work with their hands
(B) The Government insisting on the use of machines
(C) Lack of market for hand-made goods
(D) Invention of machinery and its application

7. Which of the following is not the function of the state?
(A) To protect from external aggression
(B) To provide for education and public health
(C) To compel its citizens to be religious persons
(D) To maintain law and order

8. The first General Election of Lok Sabha were held in the year—
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1957

9. The signatories to Panchasheel declaration were—
(A) India and Myanmar
(B) India and Pakistan
(C) Malasiya and Myanmar
(D) India and China

10. Who among the following persons, was responsible for the merger of Pincely States into the Indian Dominion?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Sardar Vallabh bhai Patel
(D) Sri Vithalbhai Patel

11. Of the following which is not essential for a welfare state?
(A) Efficient administration
(B) People's participation in administration
(C) Preaching of the morals
(D) Social security system

12. The most essential function of a state is to make—
(A) Labour-laws
(B) Marriage-laws
(C) Laws for the protection of the people and the property
(D) Laws for health and education

13. Who led the Home Rule Movement in India?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai and Vipin Chandra Pal
(B) Mrs. Annie Besant and Lokmanya Tilak
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Surendra Nath Banerjee
(D) None of these

14. "One who owes allegiance to the state, has access to the civil and political rights and is inspired with a sprit of-service to the community" is known as—
(A) An ideal soldier
(B) A true politician
(C) A real citizen
(D) A great patriot

15. The constitution of which country inspired us, to establish a 'Republic' ?
(A) France
(B) Italy
(C) South Africa
(D) Britain

16. One may lose citizenship if one?
(A) Maintains trade with a foreign country
(B) Visits foreign countries
(C) Has correspondence with foreign people
(D) Takes political shelter in a foreign country

17. Which of the following is the hindrance in the way of good citizenship?
(A) To be more educated
(B) To be a wealthy person
(C) To be communal-minded
(D) To be religious-minded

18. "Man's life was solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short." Who holds such views about the nature of state?
(A) Locke
(B) Hobbes
(C) Rousseau
(D) T.H. Green

19. "A man is born free and everywhere he is in chains," Whose words are these?
(A) Rousseau
(B) Austin
(C) Plato
(D) Hegel

20. Which of the following is not the duty of a state?
(A) To serve the people
(B) To command the people
(C) To protect the people
(D) To promote the health of the people

21. In a welfare state, the government—
(A) Restricts the liberty of the individuals
(B) Determines the fashions of the people
(C) Controls the trade and commerce
(D) Helps the people against poverty, old age and unemployment

22. Which of the following is not the organ of a government?
(A) Executive
(B) Judiciary
(C) Legislature
(D) Political Parties

23. The essential element of the modern state is—
(A) The Supreme Court
(B) The Political Parties
(C) The Division of Power
(D) The Sovereignty

24. Which of the following is not included in the executive wing of the government?
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The President or the King
(C) The Ministers
(D) The Judges of the Courts

25. A legislature of a country—
(A) Makes the laws
(B) Interprets the laws
(C) Protects the laws
(D) Enforces the laws

Answers :

1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B)
6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (A)

SET-4

1. Which of the following is the function of a judiciary ?
(A) Maintenance of law and order
(B) Appointment of the Judges
(C) Imparting justice according to the laws
(D) Making of the laws

2. The main function of the Constituent Assembly is—
(A) Framing the Constitution
(B) Amending the Constitution
(C) Enforcement of the Constitution
(D) Interpretation of the Constitution

3. The legislature having two houses is known as—
(A) Uni-cameral
(B) Bi-cameral
(C) Upper House
(D) Lower House

4. Which of the following arguments is not in favour of the second chamber of a legislature?
(A) It safeguards against the domination of the lower house
(B) It provides for representation of the special interests and the minorities
(C) It helps is hastly legislation
(D) It gives representation to the Units in the federation

5. In a socialist country, the government—
(A) Control the means of production and distribution
(B) Controls the means of production only
(C) Control the means of distribution only
(D) Distributes equal wealth among the citizens

6. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the meaning and the position of Sovereignty? It is—
(A) The supreme and unlimited authority of the state in internal sphere only
(B) The absolute and unlimited power of the state in external sphere only
(C) The unlimited and ultimate authority of the state both in internal and external spheres
(D) The power which enjoys complete control over all the citizens in a state

7. A state ruled by a few persons for the good of all the people, is known as—
(A) Aristocracy
(B) Democracy
(C) Oligarchy
(D) Monarchy

8. A constitutional monarchy means a state where a king—
(A) Makes the constitution for the country
(B) Has to act according to the constitution
(C) Is elected by the people
(D) Is hereditary head of the state

9. The state governed by one person for the good of the people, is known as—
(A) Tyranny
(B) Monarchy
(C) Democracy
(D) Polity

10. In the unitary type of government, there is—
(A) Rule of one person for the good of all the people
(B) One unit of administration for the entire state
(C) Rule of a single dynasty for a long period
(D) Unicameral legislature

11. "Democracy is a government of the people, by the people and for the people." Whose statement is it?
(A) Rousseau
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) T. H. Green
(D) Abraham Lincoln

12. Where there is no hereditary king but an elected head of the state, it is known as—
(A) Democracy
(B) Monarchy
(C) Republic
(D) Federation

13. 'Residuary Powers' means those powers which are—
(A) Delegated by the centre to the states
(B) Enjoyed by the king or the President only
(C) Delegated by the state to the centre
(D) Retained by the centre or the state for themselves after division of powers between the centre and the unit states in a federation

14. Which one of the following articles in the constitution of India is related to the amendment of the constitution?
(A) Article 268
(B) Article 363
(C) Article263
(D) Article 368

15. In a parliamentary type of the government, the ministry is responsible to—
(A) The Upper House only
(B) The Lower House only
(C) Both Upper and Lower Houses
(D) The President or the King

16. Where an executive head, elected for a specific period is not responsible to the legislature and can be removed only by impeachment or death, such a government is known as—
(A) Dictatorship
(B) Presidential type of government
(C) Federal type of government
(D) Democratic type of government

17. Which one of the following is not the function of the executive in a state?
(A) To appoint and dismiss the ministers
(B) To enforce the laws passed by the legislature
(C) To appoint and dismiss the legislators
(D) To run the administration of the country

18. An independent Judiciary is—
(A) A safeguard for the civil rights of the people
(B) A danger to the constitution
(C) An obstacle to the ministry
(D) A detriment to the Democracy

19. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
(A) Minto-Morley reforms Communal representation
(B) Government of India Act 1935 Provincial Autonomy
(C) Simon Commission-Partition of India
(D) Cabinet Mission-The constitution of the Constituent Assembly

20. For which of the following does the democracy not stand?
(A) Equality
(B) Liberty
(C) Fraternity
(D) Dynasty rule

21. Democracy can function successfully in a country if the people are—
(A) Physically strong and healthy
(B) Patriots
(C) Politically conscious
(D) Basically honest

22. Dictatorship is based on—
(A) Force and Fear
(B) Public Opinion
(C) Will of God
(D) Allegiance of the Constitution

23. The constitution (79th Amendment) Act 1999 relates to—
(A) Extension of reservation of seats for SC/STs in Lok Sabha and State Vidhan Sabha till January 25, 2010
(B) The grant of 33% reservation of seats in India legislatures including Parliament to women
(C) Clearing the way for reservation in promotion to union and state services to the candidates of scheduled castes and Scheduled Tribes
(D) Grant of Statehood to Union territory of Pondicherry

24. Of the following, which one is correct about a federation?
(A) Federation is domination of the centre on the states
(B) Federation is dependence of the centre on the states
(C) The centre and the states interfere in the matters of each other
(D) Federation is an association of states that forms a new one and all the units and centre derive power from the constitution

25. Which one of the following is not the power of the President of India?
(A) To declare emergency
(B) To appoint and dismiss the ambassadors
(C) To appoint and dismiss the members of Lok Sabha
(D) To dissolve Parliament and order for fresh election

Answers :
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A)
6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (B)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C)

Objective General Knowledge : The Constitution of India

General Knowledge : The Constitution of India

1. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency—
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act

2. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India

3. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above
4. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject—
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty
5. Who declares the financial emergency—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above

6. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month

7. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months

8. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

9. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

10. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office

11. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961

12. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361

13. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369

14. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C

15. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above
16. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above
17. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C
18. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964
19. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

20. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367

21. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court

22. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above
23. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India

24. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above

25. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten

26. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha—
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days

27. In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution for Removal from his office is under consideration—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

28. Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are mentioned—
(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94

29. Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

30. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament after notification is received from the Election Commission—
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

31. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

32. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament.
(A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill
(B) When the House passes such a resolution
(C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No
(D) All the above

33. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House
(B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House
(C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House
(D) one-half of the total number of members of that House

34. Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament—
(A) Article 101 to Article 104
(B) Article 101 to Articles 105
(C) Article 102 to Article 106
(D) Article 106 to Article 110

35. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter—
(A) Railway Budget
(B) Defence Budget
(C) Foreign affairs
(D) Financial Bill

36. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold—
(A) Budget session
(B) Monsoon session
(C) Winter session
(D) All the above

37. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament—
(A) First session (Budget)
(B) Second session (Monsoon)
(C) Third session (Winter)
(D) None of the above

38. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented—
(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above

39. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure—
(A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter
(C) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences.

40. Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chairman in the Rajya Sabha
(D) All the above

41. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(D) Prime Minister

42. Who has the power to present adjournment motion in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha—
(A) Minister
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Member of the said House

43. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of Reading before it becomes act—
(A) First Reading
(B) Second Reading
(C) Third Reading
(D) All the above

44. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the name—
(A) Law
(B) Bill approved
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedure

45. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting—
(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of State and Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

46. When does the President assent the Bill—
(A) Lok Sabha passes the Bill
(B) Rajya Sabha passes the Bill
(C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both passed the Bill
(D) None of the above

47. In India, when does the financial year commence—
(A) First April
(B) Second April
(C) First March
(D) Fifteenth March

48. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Ministry wise
(D) All the above

49. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha—
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

50. How are the parts of the Budget known as—
(A) General Budget
(B) Railway Budget
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

51. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other Commissioner in the Election Commission—
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

52. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall exist—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above

53. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall be conducted—
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above

54. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above

55. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22

56. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter—
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above
57. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter—
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295

58. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to Parliament—
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84

59. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a State Legislature—
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178

60. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage' signify—
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above

61. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission

62. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court—
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

63. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by appropriate Legislature—
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition

64. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha—
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334

65. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community' with House of the People—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333

66. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President—
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

67. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes—
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

68. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333

69. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3

70. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down—
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above

71. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature—
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

72. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly—
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984

73. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

74. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly—
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above

75. Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and post’—
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339

76. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

77. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

78. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

79. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

80. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill

81. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18

82. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above

83. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

84. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

85. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

86. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country's constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College

87. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above

88. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government

89. What is the nature of India's political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

90. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

91. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

92. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

93. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above

94. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

95. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged—
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above

96. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

97. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court

98. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

99. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India

100. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above


Answers :

1.(A) 2.(C) 3.(B) 4.(D) 5.(A)
6.(C) 7.(B) 8.(C) 9.(C) 10.(D)
11.(A) 12.(D) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(D)
16.(D) 17.(D) 18.(A) 19.(B) 20.(C)
21.(A) 22.(C) 23.(D) 24.(A) 25.(C)
26.(D) 27.(C) 28.(A) 29.(C) 30.(A)
31.(C) 32.(C) 33.(A) 34.(A) 35.(D)
36.(D) 37.(A) 38.(B) 39.(D) 40.(C)
41.(A) 42.(D) 43.(D) 44.(A) 45.(B)
46.(C) 47.(A) 48.(C) 49.(B) 50.(C)
51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(A) 54.(B) 55.(C)
56.(D) 57.(C) 58.(D) 59.(A) 60.(C)
61.(A) 62.(C) 63.(D) 64.(A) 65.(B)
66.(C) 67.(A) 68.(D) 69.(B) 70.(D)
71.(B) 72.(C) 73.(D) 74.(A) 75.(B)
76.(D) 77.(C) 78.(B) 79.(A) 80.(B)
81.(D) 82.(D) 83.(D) 84.(D) 85.(C)
86.(D) 87.(D) 88.(C) 89.(B) 90.(B)
91.(A) 92.(D) 93.(D) 94.(C) 95.(A)
96.(B) 97.(A) 98.(D) 99.(D) 100.(D)

List of Navratna and Miniratna Central public sector enterprises (CPSEs)

List of Navratna and Miniratna Central public sector enterprises (CPSEs)

As per available information (5.5.2008)

Navratna CPSEs

  1. Bharat Electronics Limited
  2. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
  3. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
  4. GAIL (India) Limited
  5. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
  6. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
  7. Indian Oil Corporation Limited
  8. Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited
  9. National Aluminium Company Limited
  10. NMDC Limited
  11. NTPC Limited
  12. Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
  13. Power Finance Corporation Limited
  14. Power Grid Corporation of India Limited
  15. Rural Electrification Corporation Limited
  16. Steel Authority of India Limited

Miniratna Category - I CPSEs

1. BalmerLawrie & Co. Limited

2. Bharat Dynamics Limited

3. BEML Limited

4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited

5. Bongaigaon Refineries & Petrochemicals Limited

6. Central Warehousing Corporation

7. Central Coalfields Limited

8. Chennai Petroleum Corporation Limited

9. Coal India Limited

10. Container Corporation of India Limited

11. Dredging Corporation of India Limited

12. Engineers India Limited

13. Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Limited

14. Goa Shipyard Limited

15. Hindustan Latex Limited

16. Hindustan Newsprint Limited

17. Housing & Urban Development Corporation Limited

18. India Tourism Development Corporation Limited

19. Indian Railway Catering & Tourism Corporation Limited

20. IRCON International Limited

21. Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Limited

22. Mazagaon Docks Limited

23. Mahanadi Coalfields Limited

24. Mangalore Refinery & Petrochemicals Limited

25. MMTC Limited

26. MSTC Limited

27. National Fertilizers Limited

28. Neyveli Lignite Corporation

29. NHPC Limited

30. Northern Coalfields Limited

31. Numaligarh Refinery Limited

32. Oil India Limited

33. Rashtriya Chemicals & Fertilizers Limited

34. RashtriyaIspat Nigam Limited

35. RITES Limited

36. SatlujJal Vidyut Nigam Limited

37. Shipping Corporation of India Limited

38. South Eastern Coalfields Limited

39. State Trading Corporation of India Limited

40. Telecommunications Consultants (India) Limited

41. Western Coalfields Limited

Miniratna Category-II CPSEs

42. Educational Consultants (I) Limited

43. Engineering Projects (I) Limited

44. Ferro Scrap Nigam Limited

45. HMT (International) Limited

46. HSCC (India) Limited

47. India Trade Promotion Organization

48. Indian Medicines Pharmaceuticals Corporation Limited

49. Manganese Ore India Limited

50. M E C O N Limited

51. National Film Development Corporation Limited

52. P E C Limited

53. Rajasthan Electronics & Instruments Limited

54. Water & Power Consultancy (India) Limited

Top ten Colleges in India

Top ten Colleges in India

Top 10 Engineering Colleges in India

  1. Indian Institute of Technology - IIT- Kanpur
  2. Indian Institute of Technology IIT- Delhi
  3. Indian Institute of Technology IIT- Chennai
  4. Indian Institute of Technology IIT-Mumbai
  5. Indian Institute of Technology IIT- Kharagpur
  6. Indian Institute of Technology IIT- Roorkee
  7. Indian Institute of Technology IIT- Guwahati
  8. IIIT- Allahabad
  9. College of Engineering , Anna University , Chennai
  10. National Institute of Technology , Trichy

Top 10 Medical Colleges in India

  1. All India Institute of Medical Science - AIIMS, Delhi
  2. Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC) , Pune
  3. Christian Medical College (CMC), Vellore
  4. JIPMER, Punducherry
  5. Kasturba Medical College , Manipal
  6. Lady Hardinge Medical College , Delhi
  7. Maulana Azad Medical College , Delhi
  8. Grant Medical College , Mumbai
  9. St. John’s Medical College , Bangalore
  10. Madras Medical College , Chennai


Top 10 Law Colleges in India

  1. NLSIU, Bangalore
  2. NALSAR University of Law , Hyderabad
  3. NIKU, Bhopal
  4. National Law University , Jodhpur
  5. Campus Law Centre, Delhi University , Delhi
  6. NUJS, Kolkata
  7. Symbiosis Society’s Law College , Pune
  8. ILS Law College , Pune
  9. Government Law College , Mumbai
  10. Amity Law School , Delhi

Top 10 Science Colleges in India

  1. Loyola College , Chennai
  2. St. Xavier’s College, Kolkata
  3. St. Xavier’s College, Ahmedabad
  4. St. Stephen’s College, Delhi
  5. St. Xavier’s College, Mumbai
  6. Madras Christian College , Chennai
  7. Presidency College , Chennai
  8. Presidency College , Kolkata
  9. Fergusson College , Pune
  10. Christ College . Bangalore

Top 10 Commerce Colleges in India

  1. SRCC, Delhi
  2. LSR, Delhi
  3. Loyola College, Chennai
  4. St. Xavier’s College, Kolkata
  5. Christ College , Bangalore
  6. Madras Christian College , Chennai
  7. Symbiosis Society’s College of Arts & Commerce, Pune
  8. Presidency College , Chennai
  9. St. Joseph ’s College, Bangalore
  10. Hansraj College, Delhi

Discovery / Invention in Medicine

Discovery / Invention in Medicine

SNo

Discovery / Invention

Year

Discoverer / Inventor

Country

1

Adrenaline

1894

Schafer and Oliver

Britain

2

Anesthesia, Local

1885

Koller

Austria

3

Anesthesia, Spinal

1898

Bier

Germany

4

Anti-toxins (Science of Immunity)

1890

Behring and Kitasato

Germany, Japan

5

Aspirin

1889

Dreser

Germany

6

Ayurveda

2000-1000 BC

India

7

Bacteria

1683

Leeuwenhock

Netherlands

8

Bacteriology

1872

Ferdinand Cohn

Germany

9

Biochemistry

1648

Jan Baptista Van Helmont

Belgium

10

Blood Plasma storage (Blood bank)

1940

Drew

U.S.A

11

Blood Transfusion

1625

Jean-Baptiste Denys

France

12

Cardiac Pacemaker

1932

A.S Hyman

U.S.A

13

CAT Scanner

1968

Godfrey Hounsfield

Britain

14

Chemotherapy

1493-1541

Paracelsus

Switzerland

15

Chloroform as anaesthetic

1847

James Simpson

Britain

16

Chloromycetin

1947

Burkholder

U.S.A

17

Cholera T.B germs

1877

Robert Koch

Germany

18

Circulation of blood

1628

William Harvey

Britain

19

Cryo-Surgery

1953

Henry Swan

U.S.A

20

Diphtheria germs

1883-84

Klebs and Loffler

Germany

21

Electro-Cardiograph

1903

Willem Einthoven

Netherlands

22

Electro-encephalogram

1929

Hand Berger

Germany

23

Embryology

1792-1896

Kari Ernest Van Baer

Estonia

24

Endocrinology

1902

Bayliss and Starling

Britain

25

First Test Tube Baby

1978

Steptoe and Edwards

Britain

26

Gene Therapy on humans

1980

Martin Clive

U.S.A

27

Genes associated with cancer

1982

Robert Weinberg and others

U.S.A

28

Heart Transplant Surgery

1967

Christian Barnard

S. Africa

29

Histology

1771-1802

Marie Bichat

France

30

Hypodermic syringe

1853

Alexander wood

Britain

31

Kidney Machine

1944

Kolf

Netherlands

32

Leprosy Bacillus

1873

Hansen

Norway

33

LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide)

1943

Hoffman

Switzerland

34

Malaria Germs

1880

Laveran

France

35

Morphine

1805

Friderich Sertumer

Germany

36

Neurology

1758-1828

Franz Joseph Gall

Germany

37

Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging

1971

Raymond Damadian

U.S.A

38

Open Heart Surgery

1953

Walton Lillehel

U.S.A

39

Oral Contraceptive Pills

1955

Gregory Pincus, Rock

U.S.A

40

Penicillin

1928

Alexander Fleming

Britain

41

Physiology

1757-66

Albrecht Von Haller

Switzerland

42

Positron emission Tomography

1978

Louis Sokoloff

U.S.A

43

Rabies Vaccine

1860

Louis Pasteur

France

44

Recombinant-DNA technology

1972-73

Paul Berg, H.W. Boyer,S Cohen

U.S.A

45

Reserpine

1949

Jal Vakil

India

46

Rh-factor

1940

Karl Landsteiner

U.S.A

47

Serology

1884-1915

Paul Ehrlich

Germany

48

Sex hormones

1910

Eugen Steinach

Australia

49

Small Pox eradicated

1980

W.H.O Declaration

UN

50

Stethoscope

1819

Rene Laennec

France

51

Streptomycin

1944

Selman Waksmann

U.S.A

52

Synthetic Antigens

1917

Landsteiner

U.S.A

53

Terramycin

1950

Finlay and Others

U.S.A

54

Thyroxin

1919

Edward Calvin-Kendall

U.S.A

55

Typhus Vaccine

1909

J. Nicolle

France

56

Vaccination

1796

Edward Jenner

Britain

57

Vaccine, Measles

1963

Enders

U.S.A

58

Vaccine, Meningitis

1987

Gardon, et al. Connaught Lab

U.S.A

59

Vaccine, Polio

1954

Jonas Salk

U.S.A

60

Vaccine, Polio-orai

1960

Albert Sabin

U.S.A

61

Vaccine, Rabies

1885

Louis Pasteur

France

62

Vaccine, Smallpox

1776

Jenner

Britain

63

Virology

1892

Ivanovski and Bajernick

USSR, Netherlands

64

Vitamin A

1913

Mc Collum and M. Davis

U.S.A

65

Vitamin B1

1936

Minot and Murphy

U.S.A

66

Vitamin C

1919

Froelich Holst

Norway

67

Vitamin D

1925

Mc Collum

U.S.A

68

Vitamin K

1938

Doisy Dam

U.S.A

69

Western Scientific Therapy

460-370 BC

Hippocrates

Greece

70

Yoga

200-100 BC

Patanjali

India